Question1: Which CSI step would defining metrics be appropriate for?
Question2: Which role is responsible for sponsoring, designing and change managing a process and its metrics?
Question3: Which of the following are aspects of Service Design?
(1) Architectures
(2) Technology
(3) Service Management processes
(4) Metrics
Question4: Which of the following is MOST concerned with the design of new or changed services?
Question5: What is the BEST definition of an internal service?
Question6: Which one of the following is the BEST definition of an event?
Question7: The multi-level SLA' is a three-layer structure. Which one of the following layers is NOT part of this type of
SLA?
Question8: Which one of the following are the two primary elements that create value for customers?
Question9: What is the type of notification that should be sent when a threshold has been reached, something has
changes or a failure has occurred?
Question10: Which is used to assess business demand for services?
Question11: Which of the following are types of service defined in ITIL?
1. Core
2. Enabling
3. Special
Question12: Undertaking a gap analysis is a key activity within which part of the Deming Cycle for improving services
and service management processes?
Question13: Where should the details of a workaround be documented?
Question14: Which areas are NOT measured by process KPIs?
1. Technology
2. Performance
3. Value
4. Compliance
Question15: Which is NOT a purpose of a Product Description?
Question16: What do customers NOT have ownership of when receiving value from services?
Question17: What is the CORRECT definition of service management?
Question18: "Service Management is a set of specialized organizational capabilities for providing value to customers in
the form of services". These specialized organizational capabilities include which of the following?
Question19: Which of the following statement about the service owner is INCORRECT?
Question20: Which of the following describes risk proximity?
Question21: Which of the following would commonly be found in a contract underpinning an IT service?
1. Financial arrangements related to the contract
2. Description of the goods or service provided
3. Responsibilities and dependencies for both parties
Question22: What BEST describes the value of service operation to the business?
Question23: Which is responsible for the production of the service design package (SDP)?
Question24: Which process or function is responsible for monitoring activities and events in the IT infrastructure?
Question25: Which statement should NOT be part of the value proposition for Service Design?
Question26: Which one of the following answers shows two of the activities relating to tools that will take place during
the transition stage of the service lifecycle?
Question27: Which describes an interface of incident management with service level management?
Question28: What three elements make up the Service Portfolio?
Question29: Where are the details of core and enhancing services provided?
Question30: Which of the following questions does Service Strategy help answer with its guidance?
(1) How do we prioritize investments across a portfolio?
(2) What services to offer and to whom?
(3) What are the Patterns of Business Activity (PBA)?
Question31: What is a RACI model used for?
Question32: Which of the following is the BEST description of a centralized service desk?
Question33: What are customers of IT services who work in the same organization as the service provider known as?
Question34: Which of the following are benefits to the business of implementing service transition?
1. Better reuse and sharing of assets across projects and resources
2. Reduced cost to design new services
3. Result in higher volume of successful changes
Question35: Which statement about change management is CORRECT?
Question36: Which of the following statements about the Service Portfolio and Service Catalogue is the MOST
CORRECT?
Question37: Which of the following areas would technology help to support during the service lifecycle?
1. Data mining and workflow
2. Measurement and reporting
3. Release and deployment
4. Process design
Question38: What are the categories of events described in the ITIL service operation book?
Question39: Why is it important for service providers to understand patterns of business activity (PBA)?
Question40: Which of the following is an objective of business relationship management?
Question41: A process owner has been identified with an "I" in a RACI matrix. Which one of the following would be
expected of them?
Question42: Which process has the purpose to ensure that, by managing the risks could seriously affect IT services,
the IT service provider can always provide minimum agreed business-related service levels?
Question43: Where would all the possible service improvement opportunities be recorded?
Question44: Which of the following sentences BEST describes a Standard Change?
Question45: What is a characteristic of a process?
Question46: The BEST description of the guidance provided by Service Design is?
Question47: Which of the following correctly states the relationship between urgency, priority and impact?
Question48: Contracts relating to an outsourced Data Centre would be managed by?
Question49: Which process would ensure that utility and warranty requirements are properly addressed in service
designs?
Question50: What are the three service provider business models?
Question51: What BEST defines IT service management?
Question52: How is the Service Catalogue used to add value to the service provider organization?
Question53: Which of the following is concerned with fairness and transparency?
Question54: Which is the correct definition of a customer facing service?
Question55: What must a service level agreement (SLA) define?
Question56: Which process is responsible to provide and maintain accurate information on all services that are being
transitioned or have been transitioned to the live environment?
Question57: Service design emphasizes the importance of the "Four Ps". These "Four Ps" include Partners, People,
Processes and one other "P". Which of the following is the additional "P"?
Question58: Which is the CORRECT activity to carry out the "How do we get there" phase of the Continual Service
improvement approach?
Question59: Which are the elements of process control?
Question60: Which of the following statements about service asset and configuration management is/are CORRECT?
1. A configuration item (CI) can exits as part of any numbers other CIs at the same time
2. Choosing which CIs to record will depend on the level of control an organization wishes to exert.
Question61: Which one of the following is NOT an aim of the change management process?
Question62: What is part of a configuration management system (CMS)?
1. Configuration records
2. Configuration management databases
3. Physical assets
4. Release plans
Question63: What service could include a differentiation as an "excitement factor"?
Question64: A known error has been created after diagnosis of a problem was complete but before a workaround has
been found. Is this a valid approach?
Question65: The BEST description of the purpose of Service Operation is?
Question66: What is the PRIMARY process for strategic communication with the service provider's customers?
Question67: To add value to the business, what are the four reasons to monitor and measure?
Question68: Which is the correct combination of items that makes up an IT service?
Question69: What is the name of the group that should review changes that must be implemented faster than the
normal change process?
Question70: Which of the following types of service should be included in the scope of service portfolio management?
1. Those planned to be delivered
2. Those being delivered
3. Those that have been withdrawn from service
Question71: Which stage of the change management process deals with what should be done if the change is
unsuccessful?
Question72: Which is a reason why incident management interfaces with service level management?
Question73: Which one of the following would NOT be defined as part of every process?
Question74: Removing or restricting rights to use an IT Service is the responsibility of which process?
Question75: Which of the following BEST describes a Change Authority?
Question76: What are Request Models used for?
Question77: Which of the following is NOT a source of best practice?
Question78: Which of the following activities are helped by recording relationships between Configuration Items (Cis)?
(1) Assessing the impact and cause of Incidents and Problems
(2) Assessing the impact of proposed Changes
(3) Planning and designing a Change to an existing service
(4) Planning a technology refresh or software upgrade
Question79: Which of these statements about resources and capabilities is CORRECT?
Question80: Which process is involved in monitoring an IT service and detecting when the performance drops below
acceptable limits?
Question81: In which core publication can you find detailed descriptions of Service Level Management, Availability
Management, Supplier Management and IT Service Continuity Management?
Question82: Which of the following BEST describes technical management?
Question83: Which two processes will contribute MOST to enabling effective problem detection?
Question84: Which is the first step in the 7 Step Improvement Process?
Question85: What are underpinning contracts used to document?
Question86: When is it confirmed if a project's objectives have been achieved?
Question87: Defining the processes needed to operate a new service is part of:
Question88: Which Problem Management activity helps to ensure that the true nature of the problem can be easily
traced and meaningful management information can be obtained?
Question89: Which of the following would NOT be contained in a release policy?
Question90: As a strategic tool for assessing the value of IT services, Financial Management applies to which of the
following service provider types?
(1) An internal service provider embedded within a business unit
(2) An internal service provider that provides shared IT services
(3) An external service provider
Question91: Which tool helps with defining accountability and responsibility within processes?
Question92: Which of the following would commonly be in a contract underpinning an IT service?
(1) Marketing information
(2) Contract description and scope
(3) Responsibilities and dependencies
Question93: What should be documented as part of every process?
Question94: Which of the following should be considered when designing measurement systems, methods and
metrics?
1. The services
2. The architectures
3. The configuration items
4. The processes
Question95: What should a service design package (SDP) be produced for?
1. A standard change
2. A minor change to a service
3. Removal of a service
4. A major change to a service
Question96: Which part of ITIL provides guidance in adapting good practice for specific business environments and
organizational strategies?
Question97: Which of the following BEST describes service strategies value to the business?
Question98: Which one of the following is NOT a responsibility of the service transition stage of the service lifecycle?
Question99: What does the continual service improvement (CSI) approach enable a business to achieve?
Question100: Which one of the following is NOT a characteristic of a process?
Question101: Which is an objective of the design coordination process?
Question102: In many organizations the role of Incident Manager is assigned to the Service Desk.
It is important that the Incident Manager is given the authority to:
Question103: Which of the following are CORRECT Service Design Aspects?
1. Service Solutions for new or changed services
2. Management policies and guidelines
3. Business requirements technology and management architectures
4. Process requirements technology and management architectures
Question104: Which of the following items would commonly be on the agenda for a change advisory board (CAB)?
1. Details of failed changes
2. Updates to the change schedule
3. Reviews of completed changes
Question105: What are the three types of metrics that an organization should collect to support continual service
improvement (CSI)?
Question106: Which of the following should NOT be a concern of Risk Management?
Question107: Access management is responsible for implementing policies defined in which process?
Question108: Which statement about Service Asset and Configuration Management (SACM) is FALSE?
Question109: The remediation plan should be evaluated at what point in the change lifecycle?
Question110: Which describes a proactive trigger for problem management?
Question111: Which role is responsible for carrying out the activities of a process?
Question112: Which of the following statements about communication within Service Operation are CORRECT?
1. All communication must have an intended purpose or resultant action
2. Communication should not take place without a clear audience
Question113: Which of the following statements is CORRECT?
Question114: What BEST describes the value of continual service improvement to the business?
Question115: What is the result of carrying out an activity, following a process or delivering an IT service known as?
Question116: Which of the following service desk organizational structures are described in service operation?
1. Local service desk
2. Virtual service desk
3. IT help desk
4. Follow the sun
Question117: An incident is proving difficult to resolve. A technician informs their manager that more resource is needed
to restore the service.
What has taken place?
Question118: Which one of the following does service metrics measure?
Question119: Which of the following should be documented in an incident model?
1. Details of the service level agreement (SLA) pertaining to the incident
2. Chronological order of steps to resolve the incident
Question120: What would you call the groups of people who have an interest in the activities, targets, resources and
deliverables from service management?
Question121: The definitive media library is the responsibility of:
Question122: Which of the following is the correct definition of an outcome?
Question123: Which one of the following includes four stages called Plan, Do, Check and Act?
Question124: Which of the following statements is CORRECT?
Question125: How does Problem Management work with Change Management?
Question126: One of the five major aspects of Service Design is the design of the service solutions. It includes?
Question127: Which of the following does the Availability Management process include?
(1) Ensuring services are able to meet availability targets
(2) Monitoring and reporting actual availability
(3) Improvement activities, to ensure that services continue to meet or exceed their availability goals
Question128: Which of the following should be done when closing an incident?
1. Check the incident categorization and correct it if necessary
2. Check that the user is satisfied with the outcome
Question129: ITSM concepts are often described in the context of only one of these type.
Type I, type II and type III
Question130: Which of the following is NOT an objective of the operations management function?
Question131: Which of the following statements is INCORRECT?
Question132: Which is an example of improving service utility using service management automation?
Question133: What body exists to support the authorization of changes and to assist change management in the
assessment and prioritization of changes?
Question134: When should a known error be raised?
Question135: Access management is responsible for executing the policies that are defined in which process?
Question136: Which of the following combinations covers all the roles in Service Asset and Configuration Management?
Question137: Which is the CORRECT list of the three levels of a multi-level service level agreement (SLA)?
Question138: Which process is responsible for controlling, recording and reporting on versions, attributes and
relationships relating to components of the IT infrastructure?
Question139: Why are public frameworks, such as 1TIL, attractive when compared to proprietary knowledge?
Question140: Which of the following CANNOT be provided by a tool?
Question141: Which of the following BEST describes a problem?
Question142: Which is a responsibility of a customer within the service level management process?
Question143: Which one of the following is NOT the responsibility of service catalogue management?
Question144: Which term describes if a service is fit for use?
Question145: Which stage of the service lifecycle includes catalogue management, information security management,
and supplier management?
Question146: Which stage of the service lifecycle is MOST concerned with defining policies and objectives?
Question147: A process owner is responsible for which of the following?
1. Defining the process strategy
2. Assisting with process design
3. Improving the process
4. Performing all activities involved in a process
Question148: Which of the following is NOT one of the five individual aspects of service design?
Question149: Which stage of the service lifecycle identifies, defines and aligns the IT solution with the business
requirements?
Question150: Which are phases of the release and deployment process?
1. Release build and test
2. Review and close
3. Categorize and record
4. Change authorization and schedule
Question151: Which statement about IT service-management is CORRECT?
Question152: In the phrase "People, Processes, Products and Partners". Products refers to:
Question153: Which statement BEST represents the guidance on incident logging?
Question154: Where should the definitive authorized versions of all media Configuration Items (CIs) be stored and
protected?
Question155: What MAIN factors are considered to assess the priority of an incident?
Question156: Which statement BEST describes the value of service strategy to the business?
Question157: Which of the following is the BEST description of a Business Case?
Question158: Which ITIL process is used to restore normal service operation as quickly as possible?
Question159: Which statement about the known error database (KEDB) is CORRECT?
Question160: The consideration of value creation is a principle of which stage of the service lifecycle?
Question161: Which process would you MOST expect to be involved in the management of Underpinning Contracts?
Question162: "Planning and managing the resources required to deploy a release into production" is a purpose of which
part of the Service Lifecycle?
Question163: What is the BEST description of the purpose of the service operation stage of the service lifecycle?
Question164: What are sources of best practice?
Question165: Which one of the following statements about incident reporting and logging is CORRECT?
Question166: Which of the following do Service Metrics measure?
Question167: Which one of the following statements is CORRECT?
Question168: What type of services are NOT directly used by the business but are required by the service provider to
deliver customer facing services?
Question169: Which statement BEST describes the purpose of release and deployment management?
Question170: Which reason describes why ITIL is so successful?
Question171: Which of the following identifies the purpose of design coordination?
Question172: Which is an important principle of communication in service operation?
Question173: Which process is responsible for managing all service requests from users?
Question174: Which one of the following is the BEST description of the purpose of the service operation stage of the
service lifecycle?
Question175: Which of the following provide value to the business from service strategy?
1. Enabling the service provider to have a clear understanding of what levels of service will make their
customers successful
2. Enabling the service provider to respond quickly and effectively to changes in the business environment
3. Support the creation of a portfolio of quantified services
Question176: Which of the following provides the PRIMARY source of guidance on what needs to be protected by
information security management?
Question177: Which statement about the 'four Ps" of service design is CORRECT?
Question178: Which process will regularly anal0yse incident data to identify discernible trends?
Question179: Which is the BEST definition of a supplier?
Question180: Which BEST describes the purpose of the CSI register?
Question181: What is the definition of an Alert?
Question182: Which one of the following activities are carried out during the "Where do we want to be?" step of the
continual service improvement (CSI) approach?
Question183: Which BEST describes a situation in which the emergency change advisory board (ECAB) is used?
Question184: What is most likely to cause a loss of faith in the Service Level Management process?
Question185: What processes represent the scope of financial management for IT services?
Question186: Ensuring that the confidentiality, integrity and availability of the services are maintained to the levels
agreed on the Service Level Agreement (SLA) is the responsibility of which role?
Question187: Which is NOT a structure of service desk that is described in the ITIL service operation guidance?
Question188: Which of the following activities are performed by a desk?
1. Logging details of incidents and service requests
2. Providing first-line investigation and diagnosis
3. Restoring service
4. Implementing all standard changes
Question189: Within the Continual Service Improvement (CSI) 7 step improvement process, data needs to be gathered
and analyzed from which other area of the lifecycle in order to answer the question "Did we get there?"
Question190: Which Function would provide staff to monitor events in a Network Operations Centre?
Question191: Who is responsible for ensuring that the request fulfillment process is being performed according to the
agreed and documented standard?
Question192: Which is NOT an example of a pattern of business activity (PBA)?
Question193: Which two elements of financial management for IT services are mandatory?
Question194: Which statement about stakeholders is TRUE?
Question195: Which is a definition of a risk cause?
Question196: Which of the following would be examined by a major problem review?
1. Things that were done correctly
2. Things that were done incorrectly
3. How to prevent recurrence
4. What could be done better in the future
Question197: Which statement about internal customers is CORRECT?
Question198: The difference between a Service Level Agreement (SLA) and an Operational Level Agreement (OLA) is
that:
Question199: Which process is responsible for recording the current details, status, interfaces and dependencies of all
services that are being run or being prepared to run in the live environment?
Question200: Within service design, what is the key output handed over to service transition?
Question201: Application Management plays a role in all applications. One of the key decisions to which they contribute
is?
Question202: Which part of the service lifecycle is responsible for coordinating and carrying out the activities and
processes required to deliver and manage services at agreed levels to business users and customers?
Question203: What is the act of transforming resources and capabilities into valuable service better known as?
Question204: Which is the correct explanation of the 'R' role in a RACI matrix?
Question205: Which formal agreement minimizes the risk of disputes that can occur between an IT service provider and
an external supplier?
Question206: Which is NOT a service desk type described in the ITIL service operation guidance?
Question207: Which of the following processes contributes MOST to quantifying the financial value of IT services to the
business?
Question208: A known IT service stops performing during normal business hours, then the user of the IT service calls
the service desk.
What should the service desk open?
Question209: At which stage of the service lifecycle should the processes necessary to operate a new service be
defined?
Question210: Which one of the following is the CORRECT set of steps for the continual service improvement approach?
Question211: Which is the correct combination of Service Management terms across the Lifecycle?
Question212: Which process is responsible for discussing reports with customers showing whether services have met
their targets?
Question213: Which of the following statements is CORRECT?
(1) The only phase of the Service Management Lifecycle where value can be measured is Service
Operation
(2) All of the phases of the lifecycle are concerned with the value of IT services
Question214: Which of these recommendations is best practice for service level management?
1. Include legal terminology in service level agreements (SLAs)
2. It is NOT necessary to be able to measure all the targets in an SLA
Question215: Which Function would provide staff to monitor events in an Operations Bridge?
Question216: Which process has the following objective, 'Produce service design packages (SDPs) based on service
charters and change requests'?
Question217: Which types of communication would the functions within service operation use?
1. Communication between data centre shifts
2. Communication related to changes
3. Performance reporting
4. Routine operational communication
Question218: Which areas of service management can benefit from automation?
1. Design and modeling
2. Reporting
3. Pattern recognition and analysis
4. Detection and monitoring
Question219: What is defined as the ability of a service, component or configuration item (CI) to perform its agreed
function when required?
Question220: In terms of adding value to the business, which one of the following describes service operation s
contribution?
Question221: Which of the following is NOT defined as part of every process?
Question222: What is a change of state that has significance for the management of a configuration item (CI) called?
Question223: Which process would you MOST expect to be involved in the management of underpinning contracts?
Question224: Which process monitors and improves the performance of the service transition stage of the service
lifecycle?
Question225: Which of the following is an enabler of best practice?
Question226: Which of the following is NOT a recognized example of a service provider type within the ITIL framework?
Question227: Which statement about metrics is CORRECT?
Question228: What BEST describes an important principle of communication in service operation?
Question229: Which of the following are reasons why ITIL is successful?
1. ITIL is vendor neutral
2. It does not prescribe actions
3. ITIL represents best practice
Question230: Which of the following is one of the primary objectives of Service Strategy?
Question231: Order the following continual service improvement (CSI) implementation steps into the correct sequence in
alignment with the plan, Do, Check, Act (PDCA) model.
(1) Allocate roles and responsibilities to work on CSI initiatives.
(2) Measure and review that the CSI plan is executed and its objectives are being achieved.
(3) Identify the scope, objectives and requirements for CSI.
(4) Decision on implementation of further enhancement.
Question232: What is the entry point or the first level of the V model?
Question233: Staff in an IT department are experts in managing specific technology, but none of them know what
services are offered to the business. What imbalance does this represent?
Question234: Which one of the following is the BEST description of a service-based service level agreement (SLA)?
Question235: Which statement is CORRECT?
Question236: What guidance does ITIL give on the frequency of production of service reporting?
Question237: Which process is responsible for sourcing and delivering components of requested standard services?
Question238: Which of the following is the BEST reason for categorizing incidents?
Question239: Which of the following is the best definition of service management?
Question240: Which of the following areas would not be supported by a Service Design tool?
Question241: What do customer perceptions and business outcomes help to define?
Question242: Which of the following are the MAIN objectives of incident management?
1. To automatically detect service-affecting events
2. To restore normal service operation as quickly as possible
3. To minimize adverse impacts on business operations
Question243: Implementation of IT1L service management requires the preparation and planning of the effective and
efficient use of "the four Ps." What are these four Ps?
Question244: What BEST describes the value of service design to the business?
Question245: When can a known error record be raised?
1. At any time it would be useful to do so
2. After a workaround has been found
Question246: Which function or process would provide staff to monitor events in an operations bridge?
Question247: How is a service delivered between departments of same organization classified?
Question248: Which of the following are within the scope of service asset and configuration management?
1. Identification of configuration items (CIs)
2. Recording relationships between CIs
3. Recording and control of virtual CIs
4. Approving finance for the purchase of software to support service asset and configuration management
Question249: Which of the following are managed by facilities management?
1. Hardware within a data centre or computer room
2. Applications
3. Power and cooling equipment
4. Recovery sites
Question250: Which of the following is the BEST definition of an event?
Question251: What does the 'C' in 'RACI' refer to?
Question252: What is the BEST description of the CSI register?
Question253: Which of the following availability management activities is/are considered to be proactive as opposed to
reactive?
1. Monitoring system availability
2. Designing availability into a proposed solution
Question254: What can be used to help determine the impact level of a problem?
Question255: What type of baseline captures the structure, contents and details of the infrastructure and represents a
set of items that are related to each other?
Question256: Which statement BEST describes a service request?
Question257: Which of the following activities would be performed by a process manager?
1. Monitoring and reporting on process performance
2. Identifying improvement opportunities
3. Appointing people to required roles
Question258: Which of the following is NOT a purpose of Service Transition?
Question259: Which one of the following is a correct definition of a supplier category?
Question260: Where would you expect incident resolution targets to be documented?
Question261: Which of the following statements MOST correctly identifies the scope of design coordination activities?
Question262: Which of the following statements about standard changes are CORRECT?
1. The approach is pre-authorized
2. The risk is usually low and well understood
3. Details of the change will be recorded
4. Some standard changes will be triggered by the request fulfilment process
Question263: In Service Operation, if too much emphasis is placed on 'Stability', what might the likely outcome be in
terms of responsiveness to customer needs?
Question264: Which process is responsible for low risk, frequently occurring, low cost changes?
Question265: Which process is responsible for dealing with complaints, comments, and general enquiries from users?
Question266: What are customers of an IT service provider who purchase services in terms of a legally binding contract
known as?
Question267: Effective Service Transition can significantly improve a service provider's ability to handle high volumes of
what?
Question268: Which of the following is the BEST definition of an Incident?
Question269: Which process works with incident management to ensure that security breaches are detected and
logged?
Question270: Which one of the following is the BEST definition of reliability?
Question271: Which is a supplier category?
Question272: Which one of the following can help determine the level of impact of a problem?
Question273: Which of the following statements about processes is INCORRECT?
Question274: Can service operation improve efficiency in the business operation by automating common routines?
Question275: Which one of the following do major incidents require?
Question276: The addition, modification or removal of an authorized, planned or supported service or service component
and its associated documentation is a definition of what?
Question277: What is an objective of event management?
Question278: Which statement about the service portfolio is TRUE?
Question279: Which process is used to compare the value that new services offer with the value of the services they
have replaced?
Question280: Which Service Design process makes the most use of data supplied by Demand Management?
Question281: Access management is closely related to which other process?
Question282: Which of the following is the BEST definition of a Risk?
Question283: How is a service delivered between departments of the same organization classified?
Question284: Which of the following BEST describes an operational level agreement (OLA)?
Question285: Availability management is directly responsible for the availability of which of the following?
Question286: Which process has the following objective "Establish new or changed services into supported
environments within the predicted cost, time and resource estimates"?
Question287: Which process is responsible for controlling, recording and reporting on the relationships between
components of the IT infrastructure?
Question288: Which is an example of how service automation assists service automation assists service management?
Question289: Before embarking on the 7-step Continual Service Improvement (CSI) process, which of the following
items need to be identified?
Question290: Understanding the level of risk during and after change and providing confidence in the degree of
compliance with governance requirements during change are both ways of adding business value through
which part of the service lifecycle?
Question291: Access Management is closely related to which other processes?
Question292: A Service design package (SDP) would normally be produced for which of the following?
1. A new IT service
2. A major change to an IT service
3. An emergency change to an IT service
4. An IT service retirement
Question293: Which of the following are objectives of Supplier Management?
1. Negotiating and agreeing Contracts
2. Updating the Supplier and Contract database
3. Planning for possible closure, renewal or extension of contracts
4. Managing relationships with internal suppliers
Question294: In service design, which term describes services, technologies and tools?
Question295: What is the pre-authorized change known as?
Question296: The MAIN purpose of the Service Portfolio is to describe services in terms of?
Question297: An IT department is under pressure to cut costs. As a result, the quality of services has started to suffer.
What imbalance does this represent?
Question298: The group that authorizes changes that must be installed faster than the normal process is called the?
Question299: Which statement BEST describes the stakeholders in service management?
Question300: Which of the following are included within Release and Deployment Models?
(1) Roles and responsibilities
(2) Template release and deployment
(3) Supporting systems, tools and procedures.
(4) Handover activities and responsibilities
Question301: Which three types of metric support Continual Service Improvement (CSI) activities?
Question302: Which of the following is service transition planning and support NOT responsible for?
Question303: Which of the following statements about processes is INCORRECT?
Question304: What is the ITIL guidance relating to the closure of resolved incidents?
Question305: Which of the following is NOT an example of Self-Help capabilities?
Question306: Which of the following provide value to the business from service strategy?
1. Enabling the service provider to have a clear understanding of what levels of service will make their
customer's successful
2. Enabling the service provider to respond quickly and effectively to changes in the business environment
3. Reduction in the duration and frequency of service outages
Question307: Which statement about services is CORRECT?
Question308: Which of the following are objectives of service level management?
1: Defining, documenting and agreeing the level of FT services to be provided
2: Monitoring, measuring and reporting the actual level of services provided
3: Monitoring and improving customer satisfaction
4: Identifying possible future markets that the service provider could operate in
Question309: Which is an objective of the design coordination process?
Question310: Which problem management activity ensures that a problem can be easily tracked and management
information can be obtained?
Question311: What are the processes within Service Operation?
Question312: Effective release and deployment management enables the service provider to add value to the business
by?
Question313: Which one of the following is the purpose of service level management?
Question314: Which one of the following would NOT involve event management?
Question315: A single Release unit, or a structured set of Release units can be defined within:
Question316: Which service transition process provides guidance about converting data into information?
Question317: Which one of the following is the BEST description of a major incident?
Question318: Who owns the specific costs and risks associated with providing a service?
Question319: Which of the following CANNOT be stored and managed by a tool?
Question320: Which of the following is NOT an objective of the Operations Management function?
Question321: Which process is responsible for frequently occurring changes where risk and cost are low?
Question322: Which stage of the service lifecycle includes the scope of service retirement and transfer of services
between service providers?
Question323: Consider the following list:
1. Change authority
2. Change manager
3. Change advisory board (CAB)
Which one of the following is the BEST description of the items above?